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Apr 3, 2012 12:46 PM

Is it just my perception?

I find that bone-in steaks are not as tender as boneless. Does the bone have any bearing on how tender the meat is?

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  1. I suppose it has a lot to do with what cut we are talking about. What cuts are we comparing? The same cut of meat with and without the bone, or are we comparing filet mignon vs Porterhouse steak and brisket vs Portehouse.

    2 Replies
    1. re: Chemicalkinetics

      You're right. I should have specified. I was referring to ribeyes.

      1. re: mucho gordo

        In this case, I cannot think of any good reason why bone-in would be tougher than boneless ribeyes.

    2. Well, I find that bone in pork chops have more flavor than boneless. I don't know about tenderness though. I hate the trend of boneless chops and steaks.

      1. I'm guessing but I think MG is talking about a bone in strip or ribeye and a boneless strip or ribeye. I've never done a side by side to compare tenderness but the grade of meat needs to be the same for this type of test. Also remember that 2 prime graded steaks can be widely different in marbling. One can be at the top of the prime grade and one near the boarder of prime and choice

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          1. It's your imagination.

            Also, with bone-in steaks (ribeyes, strips, etc.) people have a tendency to overcook because of the bone.

            1 Reply
            1. re: ipsedixit

              Good point. Beef ribs, for example,; if I don't specify 'well done', they'll be raw at the bone.