"With au jus" = with with the juice
Just a heads up to the authors of the many posts which refer to eating/cooking meats "with au jus". This incorrect usage may result in your opinions being considered less valuable by others. I don't mean to be snarky, just offering a metaphorical "spinach in your teeth" aside to those who'd be embarrassed.
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i think it's the same way with Shittake, which means mushroom. So saying shiitake mushroom is like saying mushroom mushroom.
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I am so with you on this one. "Jus" is th noun. It's French for "juice." "Au jus" means "with jus," or the way it is served. To say "with au jus" is to say "with with juice." The correct terminology is "I serve it "au jus," or "I serve it with jus." I feel the same pain when I hear so-called fashion experts massacre the name "Lanvin." And this is why the French hate us...
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Just to go back to a previous poster's "nova" example: the car that wouldn't sell in Mexico (or other Spanish-speaking countries) because nova supposedly means "it doesn't go."
This is a bit of an urban legend, I think. "Nova" means the same in Spanish as in English--as in, it is associated with astronomy (the nova of a star). In Spanish, "doesn't go" is "no va" which also has a different, though similar pronunciation. Any Spanish-speaker with any schooling knows this. Perhaps some people who said "nova" meant "no va" were just ignorant.
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re: Wawsanham
I think people in Mexico had fun with the name just as those in US would have fun if it was called nogo.
I could hear it now.
Chevy: No it isn't "no go", it's "nogo", there is a space between, it changes the way you pronounce it.
Smart Aleck: Yeah right, no go, you have a car named no go.-
re: TroyTempest
There's a story about how Nissan executives named their initial entry into the USA market. They asked some American for ideas. The American in turn asked how soon they planned to ship the cars, and was told 6 months (or something like that), to which he replied, 'dat soon?'
http://articles.latimes.com/2000/aug/...
says it was a German who asked 'dat soon'. Not that it matters, since the story has a much truth as the 'no va' one. -
re: TroyTempest
The Snopes entry (linked earlier) demolishes the urban legend about the Nova in Latin America. A good read. Bottom line: GM was not stupid as folks want to believe. They knew about and considered the "nova" name before they started selling the car there, and went ahead and used it anyway because they correctly judged it would have no impact on sales. They were right--it didn't. It was a successful product there, and the Nova name was used the entire time it was marketed there. Among other things the article discusses the no va vs. nova aspect, and even points out that Pemex (the Mexican national oil company) sells a gasoline dubbed Nova.
Once again, here is the link:
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re: linguafood
Oh dear me this one is a little complicated. Technically scampi does refer to a kind of shrimp, a rare sort only found in the Bay of Naples. However since it is so rare (fishing in the bay of Naples is not what it once was) it was common to use the langoustine as a substitute. The langoustine is not native to Italian waters. Truthfully it isn't found in Dublin bay either, that name comes from the fact that Dublin bay used to be a common destination for the fishing boats to sell off their catch of these crustaceans; which they actually caught in Scandanavian waters (or why langoustines are sometimes referred to as Norway Lobster or indeed why it is called a langousine (the diminuative of langouste, a.k.a. spiny lobster). When the Italians adopted the langoustine, they used the same garlic/butter/white wine sauce they had used for the shrimp, so the sauce became scampi as well. When the dish was broght over here to the US, regular shrimp were substituted, as we don't have the langoustine in our waters either. To muddle things further, in the US Langoustino often refers to a small crayfish as no one bothered to copyright/trademark/whatever you do the word "langoustine/langustino"
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i was just watching an old episode of Chopped, and one of the chefs said she was making a "ragu sauce." i told her that ragu *means* sauce, but she didn't respond :)
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re: paulj
so does the French ragoût (obviously). but the issue here is definition, not etymology...and i'm willing to bet that source you cited *defines* a ragu as something along the lines of a tomato-based meat sauce typically served with pasta, and a ragoût as a thick meat or fish stew.
for the record, she was preparing a pumpkin-based sauce with no pasta in sight.
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CH itself has a "most popular" video titled "how to sous vide an egg at home". Will a recipe for "the best au jus" be far behind?
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re: Parigi
It personally offends my sensibilities when someone asks for tea, but what they really want is a tisane or herbal infusion. Tea is only tea if it contains the leaves from the camelia sinensis plant. Any number of other inappropriate uses of words tend to annoy me. Biscotti is another such instance.
A fine example of companies not being aware of etymolgy:
- Coit the blinds cleaning company (Think coitus)
- Ford naming a car the "Nova" in mexico and wondering why no one purchased it (Who would buy a car that didn't go?)-
re: tehtroll
http://www.snopes.com/business/misxlate/nova.asp
"Hercule Poirot: Miss Lemon, yesterday was yesterday. My tisane, if you please."
http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0676188/q... -
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re: tehtroll
Not to accelerate the thread drift, but the cleaning company apparently comes by its name honestly. It was started in San Francisco, in the same neighborhood as Coit Tower, which in turn was bequeathed to the city by one Lillie Hitchcock Coit.
Now, about the shape of that tower....
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Ugh. Just read a resto review in the New Yorker by Andrea Thompson, saying something was served 'with au jus sauce'. I always thought the NYer had higher standards...
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re: kagoo
One of my mom's favorite food stories was when she went to Antione's in New Orleans (the Oysters Rockefeller place) and one of the liasted appetizers was "Fromage du creme du Phillidelphie" curios she order it and was served....Philadelphia brand cream cheese! I actually didnt beleive this story when she told it but she saved the menu and she's right that's what they wrote.
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re: jumpingmonk
One of my less-favorite French restaurants in Boston (you know who you are, PRB!) offers a variation on paté de foie gras prepared "au microonde." Being in the communications business I know that microonde is French for microwave, so I asked the server - sure enough, it's prepared in the microwave. Why the chef insists on bragging about this on the menu is beyond me (the server, too, was mystified by that). It wasn't even very good - creamy but bland, with only a hint of foie gras flavor.
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Thank you to all..you have managed to mix my two favourite topics...food and etymology. I don't think I have enjoyed or laughed at a thread on this board as much as I have for this one.
My position aligns with those who note that langauge is not static and that adopting a word or phrase from one language into another means that the word or phrase loses the rules that apply from it's original language and becomes subject to the rules of its adopted language. As such, "au jus" becomes an english phrase and it becomes proper to use the English rules. "With "au jus" seem perfectly fine to me as an English speaker but, frankly, the food snob in me - and the influence of a bilingual country (Canada) - means I will never depart from simply "au jus".
Now: intra language doubling up drives me crazy. The "PIN numbers" and "ATM machines"" etc are examples of poor speech and should be grounds for charging someone.
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A couple of days ago, I heard Guy Fieri on his "Big Bite" show saying he was going to make "au jus gravy". The remote just kept flipping..
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If I were in France and saw a menu item described as "avec au jus," I'd be worried. I live, however, in the USA, and do not expect that everyone speaks every language perfectly. In a French restaurant in the US, I'd expect them to get this right, likewise an Italian restaurant should train their servers how to pronounce "bruschetta." In an American casual dining place, however, I have no pronunciation expectations.
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re: c oliver
Yes, in Italian (courtesy of a 3wk immersion course in college):
sch = sk
sc = sh
ch = k
ci = chee
ce = cheh
sce = sheh
There's not a sound like "ch" in "church", but the pronunciation of "gg" is close. Double consonants are pronounced with extra stress and a forceful expulsion of air as the following letter is enunciated.
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re: BobB
I think you're right that it's a Germanic pattern, but it's not a recent development. I am pretty sure the use of tunafish (probably originally tunnyfisc) predates the use of tuna or tunny in English. The names of fish in Old and Middle English all seem to end in "fisc" and then later "fish", just like the names of fish in other Germanic languages often do. Salmon, for example, was originally læxfisc. The first part of each name seems to have originally described a characteristic of the fish. These have mostly been lost, however, as our modern names tend to come from Romance languages, but would initially have kept the "-fish" ending pattern when adopted in to English. Interesting, we dropped our original name for salmon, "læxfisc", close to a thousand years ago, only to have the closely related word "lox" reenter the lexicon in the last century or so.
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The usage is a tautology, the needless repetition of something in different words, as in: widow woman. The word widow implies female, so the following word “woman” is unnecessary. “With au jus” is just as redundant.
Clearly the folks who use “with au jus” are not familiar with the French language, and I can understand that. I hear many people who say “No problemo” trying to espeaka de Spanish, but the word is “problema”. I used to correct people, but then figured “What the hell” and let it go. I found it was too boorish of me to correct them on such a niggling detail when they didn’t know (or were even interested in) Spanish to begin with.
They same can be said in this case, although the phrase “with au jus” has produced this very entertaining thread! So I’ll keep reading as I sip my Burgundy Red or maybe a nice Chardonnay White..?
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re: RobinJ
On the flip side, the current Velveeta commercial bothers me no end. Man runs into a beauty parlor begging: "Queso...I need queso! Please!" He doesn't mean "I need cheese"; what he means is "I need Chili con queso." So a woman with foil hair dye strips on her head (perhaps she's his wife; we're never quite sure) jumps out of her chair, runs into the kitchen in back (huh?) and from a pantry stocked with nothing else but Velveeta boxes and Rotel cans, takes one of each. She then cubes up the Velveeta, opens a can of Rotel Diced Tomatoes and Green Chiles, mixes them in a bowl and then heats them up in the microwave. We then see her dipping a taco chip into it and feeding this man who, satisfied, runs out of the shop (with the bowl in hand, mind you.)
The tag line: Rotel and Velveeta: together, they make queso.
NO, they make Chili con queso.-
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re: mcsheridan
<They (and I) used the term "queso" too loosely when considering this Kraft 'food product'.>
You're not the first. This caused me no end of confusion a couple of years ago.
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re: mcsheridan
Context, context. Yes if you mention 'queso' in a Spanish speaking country, they understand it to be 'cheese'. But what if you ask for it in a TexMex restaurant? Will the waitress as 'Do you mean 'Chile con Queso' or plain Queso'?
From Wiki:
"Chile con queso (Spanish for "chile with cheese"), usually known simply as queso, is an appetizer that is served in Tex-Mex restaurants....
Chile con queso is called "queso" by Texans. It should not be confused with "cheese dip," an inaccurate colloquialism used by people unfamiliar with Tex-Mex cuisine."How about chili? Should we insist that everyone return to 'chile con carne'? or Carne de res con chiles rojo al estilo Texas'?
By the way, is it Chile con queso, or Chili con queso? Chili, with the 'i', often is reserved to the TexMex meat stew, not just anything with chile peppers in it.
Is 'chile pepper' a redundancy?
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re: paulj
"Queso" meaning "chile con queso" seems to be limited to Texas (so far), although with the Velveeta commercial the shorthand term will probably spread.
A Texan new to Colorado asked our Yelp board where to find queso. The response was a universal "huh?"
The questioner was quite miffed that we didn't know what queso is. We felt the same way about him; queso to us is cheese. We have chile con queso here, and that's what we call it. So far.
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re: RobinJ
Same thing happened on the Manhattan board. I was terribly confused, but luckily other thread participants were more worldly than me. And now "the 'chili con' is implied" is a phrase I try to work into casual conversation whenever possible (which is not very often, sadly).
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re: paulj
There's a place we've been going to in a small town in Southern Oregon. All Mexican-Americans own it andwork there. They may their own chorizo, mix it cheese, put into a cazuela and heat til bubbling. We get it with a mixture of vegetables that have been grilled and whole jalapenos that are dropped in to hot oil til all brown and bumpy. So good.
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re: mcsheridan
Not sayin' it's right, but...
At Tex-mex places in Austin if you order "queso" in a restaurant you'll get something resembling the stuff being advertised on the commercial. If you order "chile con queso" you're likely to get it with a layer of spiced ground beef (aka "chili meat") on top. Course then there's Bob Armstrong dip, which adds a layer of guacamole. They're all good food for drunken students.
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re: EWSflash
Yes there is 'queso' (cheese) in the word 'quesadilla', but that does not mean it is a required part of the filling. Particularly in central and southern Mexico, quesadillas are made with freshed rolled disks of (corn) masa. It is easy to fine authentic recipes (e.g. from Kennedy or Bayless) for fillings that do not include any cheese. Crumbled queso fresco may be sprinkled over the top (after cooking).
This is a case where a little knowledge of source language is actually misleading.
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re: paulj
Right. In Mexico City you can find "quesadillas" which don't have any cheese in them. Everybody else in Mexico calls them "quesadillas sin queso" and finds the concept of a cheese-less quesadilla ridiculous and symptomatic of the Mexico City dwellers, who are not held in high regard.
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re: thew
Stimulated by the 'tisane' complaint below I looked up 'tea'. Turns out there is 1 Chinese character, but two quite different words (depending on the Chinese language). Some other languages borrowed the 'te' word, others the 'chai' word. English took 'tea', but in recent years as adopted the Indian 'chai' to mean an Indian style spiced tea (masala chai), with milk and spices. So in American English, 'chai' is not synonymous with 'tea'; it goes back to the same Chinese character, but the path into English has been different.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tea#The_...
Etymology gives interesting information on a word, but it is seldom sufficient to define it, or to explain its contemporary usage.
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re: paulj
"Turns out there is 1 Chinese character, but two quite different words (depending on the Chinese language). "
Chai - 茶 - is indeed a regional pronunciation of "tea", a region in China that exports tea, in fact. In standard (Mandarin) pronunciation and also in Cantonese, it is "cha".
I would not call them different words.-
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re: paulj
Well yes China has more than 2 dialects. :-)
While té is used to mean tea in some European countries, Chai is the word used to mean tea not only in India but also in Greece and Turkey, and possibly many other other countires on or near the Silk Route."Turns out there is 1 Chinese character, but two quite different words (depending on the Chinese language). "
Té, Chai, Cha are different ways of pronouncing the same word "茶". They are not different words.
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re: Parigi
[In the late 17th c] " Served primarily to men, it was first called Cha, from the Cantonese slang for tea. The name changed later to Tay, or Tee, when the British trading post moved from Canton to Amoy, where the word for tea is T'e (Ukers 1935: 23)."
http://www.panix.com/~kendra/tea/tea_...-
re: paulj
Cha is not slang. It is the actual pronunciation for the word 茶. It is pronounced by the Fukienese (Amoy region) as something like té. The same character, pronounced by the Xijiang people in the north, becomes chai. No matter how the English transcription for the character changed, the character in Chinese has never changed. If Hu Jintao or IM Pei or Zhang Yimou offers you a cup of the stuff today, he will call it cha, and there's nothing slangy about it.
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re: paulj
Actualy I head that the "Te" pronociation is the older of the two. in the very early days of China (when tea was 1. still a bit of a novelty and 2. still made into bricks before it was ground up to be used) the character was pronuced someting like "t'u". I dont think the "t'cha" or "cha" pronociation became common until around the Ming dynasty (or maybe it was the T'ang), when tea began to become a mainstream and everyday commodity in China
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re: jumpingmonk
My reply disappeared.
A linguistics prof liked to use the example of cha 茶 as a word that underwent the least historic evolution, and it sounds the same between Mandarin and Cantonese. His theory was that 1000 to 200 years ago, the dialect spoken in Chang An (capital for most of that time) was closer to modern Cantonese than modern Mandarin. Another hint is that all the Tang poems are better rhymed in Cantonese than in Mandarin.
As for me, I dunno. None of us were around then, and there is no recording. :-)
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Does this (and the other examples) qualify as an idiom, a phrase that is best understood through common usage, as opposed to the literal meaning of its pieces?
'au jus' in French is a prepositional phrase, but 'au' is not an English preposition.
Or another way to look at it, 'au jus' has entered the English language as a noun, meaning effect, 'an unthickened gravy', as opposed to an adjective. So English speakers who are not thinking in terms of its French roots, feel a need to add the 'with'. I think the example of the Arabic 'al' is quite relevant. Quite often linguistic details are lost (changed) when a word or phrase is transferred from one language to another.
The English is language is quite forgiving when borrowing words. For exaple, we don't insist on adding a 'o' or 'a' gender marker on every word. But that borrowing can also be sloppy.
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re: paulj
Technically, "au jus" is an adjective. In French, that follows the verb but in English, it precedes it so we should have au jus roast beef, not roast beef au jus. Getting too technical makes it sound stupid pretty.
As for borrowing "o" or "a" endings, we do, if the word is Italian. Pizza, not pizzo or pizz. And we don't do it to every word because not every word is Italian based. English tends to borrow the word as is but use its own grammatical structure eg if you want to make pizza plural, we wouldn't follow Italian grammar and call it pizze. Given how amalgamated English is, we'd have to be fluent in too many languages to conjugate every word in its original language.
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re: Parigi
In English, the modifier usually is placed before the noun. For example, 'beef steak'. An English speaker who does not know French, could very well take 'au jus' as the noun, and beef as the adjective. Yes, I know 'au jus' is written as two words, but it is usually pronounced as a two syllable word.
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re: paulj
"usually pronounced as a two syllable word"
Usually? The way "on the cob" is pronounced as a 3 syllable word, - usually, - modifying corn? How does one distinguish the pronunciation of 2 words with one syllable each, and one 2-syllable word, usually? And so White House is - usually - pronounced as a two-syllable word? Then what isn't?
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re: Parigi
Those are all phrases. They may be spoken with the same rapidity as a word, but they are clearly composed of several words. 'on the cob', could easily be changed to 'in the cob', 'on the corn', changing the meaning, but not the syntactic structure of the phrase.
I couldn't modify 'au jus' without delving into French.
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re: BobB
http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/18...
points out that the earliest English use, from 1668, includes the extra 'the':"If by the people you understand the multitude, the οἱ πολλοί"
And the use of the Arabic 'al' article has already been mentioned
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re: paulj
That's one point of view, and one with which I happen to disagree. Call me pedantic if you must, you won't be the first.
I also draw a distinction between Arabic words that have been adopted into the language as English with "al" appended (e.g., alcohol, algebra) vs compound phrases such as Al Jazeera or Al Qaida (not to mention al dente). Hoi polloi to my ear falls into the latter category. But feel free to use "the" with it if it sounds better to you.
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re: chowser
"Pizzo" has a very different meaning! http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pizzo_%2...
Though I confess I flinch when I hear "a panini" (or "un panini", though it is done less in French).
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re: paulj
"'Au jus" may be wrongly used by some English-speakers as a noun, but not by all.
In Antwerp a waiter assured me that "everyone around here" understood that "wok" means food that is sautéed, hence the resto's menu offering different woks: beef wok, chicken wok, etc. I told him I was from the country that invented the wok and thought the usage was comical. He insisted that everyone in Antwerp understood the word differently.
So I ordered a glass. He asked: a glass of what? I told him it was understood in MY country.And can one talk about "forgiving" when one is borrowing? In fact is France the one who should be forgiven for "au jus"?
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My best friend declared that she was my best friend one night at a restaurant, when I had ordered prime rib "with au jus." When my plate came, there was no jus, and I exclaimed, "Hey, my prime rib didn't come with with with juice!" My friend declared her undying affection for me then and there.
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I haven't had a french dip in over 15 years but this thread is making me crave one. Here's an interesting discussion on improperly used terms, including au jus. Pass me an apple pie with a la mode...
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You're not snarky! I'm glad to learn and welcome it.
Saying "cheese with fish is forbidden" is snarky and makes me immediately want to dust my salmon with parmesan! Saying "from my experience, cheese interferes with the flavor is fish", makes me think twice, and you have my attention.
Lots of grammatical errors go mainstream, not making them right, like referring to "the 80's" instead of "the 80s". Because something is widely accepted never makes it right. At one point it was widely accepted that the world was flat.
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re: scuzzo
<<Because something is widely accepted never makes it right.>>
Actually it does it make it right. The OED will take in new meanings of existing words wih no problem. Speech patterns change with each generation and with absorption of new cultural values. Your use of commas in the previous sentence is a move in English to represent pauses in speech as opposed to a purely grammatic positioning - a move which I approve of. (cf: a move of which I approve). The grating we all feel is when a new expression seems an uneducated and unnecessary nouveau addition, adoption or amendment to the gemütlich status quo of our language.
Incidentally, throughout history most reasonably advanced civilisations thought the world.
We willingly accept certain phrases such as radar detection, laser radiation or ac current and they are not incorrect. The purpose of language is ultimately to convey information. It should not be held on a pedestal of inviolability, else we would all still be speaking Chaucerian English or some proto-Sumerian language.
And of course we should mix languages. One of the huge strengths of English is / was its ability to cherry pick from other languages.
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re: c oliver
I think it's because you speak some (maybe a lot) of French. For all I know Bahn Mi may mean 'with bread' and I would be perfectly happy to say with "bahn mi sandwiches".
But you are right, 'with au jus' grates on me too. It doesn't exist in England, and I am yet to see it in Canada.
I just realised I missed a word out of my previous reply. It should have read:
<throughout history most reasonably advanced civilisations thought the world round - with occasional doctrinal flatitudes. >
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re: c oliver
Not if "au jus" comes to mean "meat drippings" in English. Like Paulustrious said, knowing a bit of French (in this case) allows one to see an obvious error. I am a bit of an English grammar freak, and that also extends to French and Spanish. But given even the slightest chance, I would ignorantly butcher hundreds of foreign languages.
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re: Paulustrious
Re: "Because something is widely accepted never makes it right."
I concur with Paulustrious. In a recent column regarding deceased NY Times word maven William Safire, they reiterated that Safire, for all his "usage policing," admitted that English is a living language and that words tend to begin to mean what people using them *intend* them to mean.
"with au jus" is, indeed, wrong, however, any way you slice it. (Here I'm anticipating a query from the delightful c oliver)
-- addenda: I just read farther down the thread. alanbarnes can be *my* William Safire anytime!
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re: scuzzo
scuzzo, I'm pretty sure that if you were determined to use apostrophes when saying
"the 80's" instead of "the 80s"
you could say "the '80s", since you are truncating the 1980s.There's a site called toothpastefordinner.com that has some pretty great cartoons. One is a guy hawking apostrophes. He's shouting "Apostrophes, get your apostrophes! Use 'em for plurals, get your apostrophes here..."
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Also, we should never say "the alcohol" or "the alfalfa" because the "al-" part already means "the", right?
All languages are full of quirky little mistakes and imperfections. That's what's so great about them.
People are always looking for reasons to consider others' opinions less valuable. That's what's so awful about them.
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re: DeppityDawg
I don't believe that's the breakdown of the word "alcohol" (isn't it based on alkyls or something?). I used to feed my horses alfalfa but I don't know its English origin. But I would say that something that has changed, if these have, over hundreds of years is quite a bit different than saying "with au jus." I wouldn't consider someone's opinion less valuable but it would be a tad fingernail-on-the-blackboard-ish.
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re: c oliver
It and alfalfa are actually from arabic. I think the al- prefix mes best or best of. Alfalfa come from al-fash-fash which basically means "best of fodders (things you feed animals, like horses)". Alcohol comes from al-kohl "best of kohls" (an black arseinide of antimony, one popular as an eye makeup. and orginaly simply meant a distillate done with heat so tecnically alchol as we undersantd it isnt reduntant it's insufficent (back when it was still a new idea it often was called "alcohol of wine")
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re: DeppityDawg
"Al" is the definite article in Arabic. It is not, however, redundant to say "the alcohol", because the Arabic word is "al-kuhl". "Alcohol" is an English word. Once a word or term is assimilated to a language, it has a distinct meaning within that language, and functions by the grammatical rules of that language.
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re: luckyfatima
what would be a more authentically Indian way of talking about 'chai tea' - a (soy) milk, spiced tea mix? If 'chai' just means tea, how do you add the spiced connotation? Some years ago, before 'chai' was a available in liter boxes, I bought a bottle of 'chai massala', a mix of cardamom, ginger, etc., i.e. a spice mix intended for use in 'chai'.
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re: DeppityDawg
No, everyone would get what you mean if you said masala chai. Though the specifics of the exact spices use could vary, they would all be within the acceptable range of what spices go in spiced tea.
No one is going to put, say, goda masala or sambar masala in your chai. I promise. :-)
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re: Scrofula
i have to say in all my years in india that has not been my experience. most of the tea in india is served in small chai shops, or by roadside chai wallahs, not in fancy restaurants. i would say, that in my experience 99% of those have at least a little spice mixed in the tea.
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re: jumpingmonk
Funny thing about 'gunny sack'. While 'gunny' comes from an Indian word for 'sack', in English it normally refers to the material commonly used for sacks. So adding 'sack' to the phrase in English is not redundant. It is equally common to use 'gunnysack'.
I bet a lot of posters who object to 'with au jus', don't even flinch when they hear 'gunny sack'.
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re: paulj
I actually heard something similar on a cartoon yesterday, on whether "Tuna fish" is redundant. On one level the way it is usally used, it sort of is (we don't say "salmon fish" or "bass fish" or, god help me, "swordfish fish". On the other hand I am fairly sure that there are parts of the world where the word means other things (for example isn't "tuna" the word used in parts of the southwest to refer to catus fruit? or does that version have a tilde (in which case I imagine it is pronounce "tunya") in those places, I assume you need the "fish" part to tell which one you are talking about.
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re: jumpingmonk
On Google ngram 'tuna fish' appears around 1910, with a jump in the 1930s. The sources mostly talk about 'canned tuna fish' and related commercial fisheries in the USA. UK usage is much lower.
'tunny' is more common before that.
Many of the 19th c references to 'tuna' are to the cactus fruit. That name comes from Spanish.
In Spanish, the fish is atún.
More discussion here
http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/a...
posts there mention 'tunny fish', and the German Thunfische
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re: somervilleoldtimer
I've heard CHARCUTERIE pronounced "shock a TER ee" by a few moderately-priced places in Southern CA. I couldn't shake it from my auditory memory.
I am a very, very basic French speaker.Now granted, most English-only speakers wouldn't pronounce it as French speakers would. In fact, my French-speaking American culinary friends agree that it is acceptable and normal to hear it pronounced by servers as "shar COO ter ee".
And if you ask native French speakers, well there is only one way to say it.
A correct usage can really depend on how it is informally accepted by the majority of people in the region it is being spoken. But an egregious pronunciation, as pointed out above, is laughable.
On a different note, in my first trip to Paris, I got a kick out of an Indian server (with a Tamil accent) in Le Marais admonishing my use of "pommes frites". In fact, at first he feigned ignorance when I ordered them. My Parisian friend had to use "french fries" for him to supposedly understand.
Cheers.
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re: Mr Taster
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictio...
the 'fi-la' pronunciation is limited to the food use. Otherwise we use 'fil-it'. At least in the non-food use it is hardly foreign, going back to Middle English.I wonder when and where the pseudo-French pronunciation crept in. It could go back to the 19th c. when the use of French on menu's was all the rage.
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re: Mr Taster
aRse. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arse
Yes, in Canada we use both. So we aren't half-arsed, or half-assed.
The equine is always an ass.
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re: sandylc
When is 'fillet' English, and when is it French?
http://dictionary.reverso.net/english...
various translations of 'fillet' into French
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re: Terrieltr
Terrieltr wrote upthread:
"PIN Number
ATM Machine
With au jusI see it as all the same thing"
Or as my pals in Jersey irritatingly used to say, "It's the same difference."
Yogi Berra once was asked if a situation wasn't a lot like another that had occurred recently. His answer was, "The similarities are different." !!
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Good point. Also a while back someone pointed out (not on CH) that you shouldn't be mixing/combining languages anyway. The example she gave was "double entendre" but I can't think of a food one offhand --- except au jus.
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re: c oliver
I had a co-worker who used to go bonkers over Beef Fajitas saying it was redundant, and chicken fajita was impossible, being that the fajita was a cut of beef. According to the dictionary, it is a cut of meat, without the type of meat being specified, but i suspect originally that it was beef. Well, needless to say he never won this battle.
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re: TroyTempest
I know a coffeeshop that offers "Free Coffee Tomorrow."
A present for their customers which of course never quite arrives in the present tense... And a sign which sometimes renders a less-than-understanding customer somewhat, um, tense.I always thought they should offer Soup du Hier, soup from yesterday. Like stew, it's always better on the second day.
One more thing to offer on that subject, attached pic of an honest sign.-
re: eclecticsynergy
The first reminds me of the following song from the TV movie version of Alice in Wonderland http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=d-MLwP...
As for the second that takes me back to some of the odd things that could show up at the dining hall back at colledge, like the NY strip soup (steak soup, sure, but they normally 1. don't advertize what cut as part of the name 2. Wouldn't use a cut like that for soup and 3. Served it 3-4 days after a semi-annual festive meal (that they had said had not had enough atendees that year at that hall.)
And I suppose that a lot of tradtional kitchens served something like Soup du Hier or more accurately (pardon me for grammar, French is not a language I am fluent in) Soup de Tout de Hiers, soup from all the yesterdays (i.e. the perpetually simmering pot kept on the back burner of many a kitchen into which all leftover meal scraps were tossed in a "waste not want not" plan. -
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re: c oliver
Whoever claimed that "double entendre" is mixing languages clearly doesn't speak French. "Double" is the same word, spelled the same way, in both English and French. It's pronounced differently, of course - the French sounds more like DOOB-lə - but the phrase itself is as completely French as bon appetit.
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re: BobB
I'm not sure I follow. The phrase, while using French words, is not used often in French (double sens is more typical-- and in fact, I think I've only ever heard double entendre used by English speakers), Meanwhile, bon appetit is used in the francophone nations I run around in.
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re: Parigi
Double sens is the modern usage. Looking into this further I find I was slightly incorrect - etymologically it appears that double entendre is actually a corruption of the older French phrase "à double entente." But in either case, "double" is both an English and a French word, so someone insisting it's purely English and shouldn't be mixed with French is clearly off base.
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The phrase is common parlance in the cafeteria at the Department of Redundancy Department.
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re: sandylc
I suspect this apostrophe is like the one used on "the 70's". It's a way of gluing the plural 's' on to a word that normally does not take a plural, either because it's a number or foreign. This apostrophe also appears on store names and surnames, often in an ambiguous plural/possessive context.
Think about how the apostrophe is used in "it's" - it's part of the contraction, gluing 'is' onto 'it'. Why don't we use the apostrophe in the possessive case "its"? I think the rule was invented to resolve an ambiguous situation. We don't pronounce the two "its" differently; but it helps when writing to make the distinction clear.
I'm not saying that such a usage is right, just that this may be how their minds are working.
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re: TroyTempest
It's called the "grocers' apostrophe" and it always amuses me.
e.g. "Sale! Grape's 2 lbs/$1.00"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostrop...
Mr Taster
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