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2% sub for whole milk in baking?

funklight Jul 2, 2009 02:25 PM

I'm making Chow's malt cake recipe and i was wondering if it would be detrimental to use 2% milk in place of whole milk. Does anyone have any advice?

  1. kpzoo Jul 2, 2009 02:40 PM

    I've never used whole milk (or homogenized milk as we call it in Canada) - I always use 2% and I've never had a problem with any baked-good recipe in my entire life. Not sure if there's something very special about that malt-cake recipe, but for a difference of 1.5% I probably wouldn't worry. :-)

    My 2 cents.

    1 Reply
    1. re: kpzoo
      Ruth Lafler Jul 2, 2009 02:51 PM

      I agree. In fact, I unless the recipe specifically says that I must use whole milk, I usually use what I have, which is nonfat milk. It undoubtedly makes a difference, but it's a tiny difference that is probably undectible to most people.

    2. greygarious Jul 2, 2009 04:06 PM

      Whole milk is only around 3% fat, so there's unlikely to be a readily-discernible difference in texture or taste.

      1. Kajikit Jul 2, 2009 04:12 PM

        I use 1% milk for everything and I haven't noticed any difference in baked goods whatsoever... the lower fat content is noticeable if you're trying to make a creamy sauce, but not in baked goods.

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