Why do we call G&Ts gin *and* tonics but VTs just vodka tonics?
Some of us have too much time on our hands.
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My hypothesis is that gin and tonic got here first, in the days when we were wantonly and recklessly wasteful with our natural resources, including trees and paper. A VT is much more compact, and as it occurs in print, it will eventually spare the need for another page...and will save another tree. A VT is very PC.
Next, we should obviate the use of the letter "u" following "Q's" , and save still more trees...:)›2 Replies -
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re: MMRuth
No. Gin and It is gin and sweet vermouth.
See this thread.
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It's the whole consonant-vowel-consonant thing. "Gin and tonic" rolls off the tongue; no double vowels. Same with "vodka tonic" But if you order a "vodka and tonic" you have to make a full stop before the "and." Which can be difficult at times.
"I drink Asti Spumante until I can't pronounce it any more. Then I drink beer." - Benny Hill
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re: alanbarnes
Oh, I suppose you're right. It's the natural alternating stressed and unstressed syllables thing.
I imagine this Q would have been more appropriate for a logophile's forum—but then, a good drink can foster all sorts of philias. As well as, yes, the inability to speak the words one loves.
Edit: I mean natural in the English language, of course, although FCF's claim below complicates the theory.
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