Why do we call G&Ts gin *and* tonics but VTs just vodka tonics?
- tatamagouche Aug 23, 2008 10:43 AM
Some of us have too much time on our hands.
It's the whole consonant-vowel-consonant thing. "Gin and tonic" rolls off the tongue; no double vowels. Same with "vodka tonic" But if you order a "vodka and tonic" you have to make a full stop before the "and." Which can be difficult at times.
"I drink Asti Spumante until I can't pronounce it any more. Then I drink beer." - Benny Hill
Oh, I suppose you're right. It's the natural alternating stressed and unstressed syllables thing.
I imagine this Q would have been more appropriate for a logophile's forum—but then, a good drink can foster all sorts of philias. As well as, yes, the inability to speak the words one loves.
Edit: I mean natural in the English language, of course, although FCF's claim below complicates the theory.
My hypothesis is that gin and tonic got here first, in the days when we were wantonly and recklessly wasteful with our natural resources, including trees and paper. A VT is much more compact, and as it occurs in print, it will eventually spare the need for another page...and will save another tree. A VT is very PC.
Next, we should obviate the use of the letter "u" following "Q's" , and save still more trees...:)