Dried beans/canned beans
Can someone please tell me the equivalent value for a pound of dried beans(kidney, garbanzo, etc) in terms of canned? If a recipe calls for 1 pound of dried beans, how many cans/ounces can I substitute for the dried? Is it one-to-one?
Thank you so much.
The beans you mention are sold in 15 ounce cans. This should be plenty to match that 16 ounce equivalent (minus the liquid). I've used beans from the can as substitutes for dried beans cooked for a couple of recipes and have been satisfied. If you're making a salad from these beans, it's really not a big deal, as an ounce or two will not make or break the dish. I can't imagine that you'd be using dry beans in a salad or other dish, so an equivalent cooked, should be about the same. I'd recommend checking your recipe and looking for the designations [i.e. one cup cooked kidney beans vs. one cup kidney beans, cooked] there is a big difference! Again, the substitutions I've made haven't negatively affected the recipes.
It's not one to one, as the dried beans take on a lot more weight as they are cooked (they are absorbing liquid, after all).
Here is a previous thread addressing the same question. The short answer is 1 lb dried beans = 3 to 4 cans (15 oz size, drained) of cooked beans.
I agree you want 3 to 4 standard cans.
Remember, though, that a recipe that calls for dried beans probably has directions for cooking them. You will have to take account that your beans from the can are already cooked and adjust your times or what you do.
I was just wondering the same thing in reverse. I want to try a new recipe this weekend that calls for a can of garbanzos, but I'm trying to cut back the grocery budget and refuse to spend more on a single can than on 1 pound bag. I'm usually search-feature challenged on CH, but amazingly, I actually found the answer quickly and easily. So thank you chowhounders for answering my question before I asked it!