More dried beans - stupid question alert
- Newbie May 7, 2005 06:50 AM
I am making Rick Bayless' chorizo and black bean chili but the recipe calls for 3 1/2 cups of cooked black beans to start with. I need a dried bean conversion chart: how many cups of dried black beans will produce 3 1/2 cups of cooked black beans? See, I told you it was a stupid question. Any help much appreciated.
This is by no means a stupid question and I bet a whole lot of people never even thought about it till you raised the issue here. One cup of dry black beans yield 2.5 cups of cooked black beans. Someone correct me if my math is off but 1.4 dried cups yield 3.5 cups cooked. This formula applies to kidney beans as well. I say go crazy and do a cup and a half of dried beans.
I checked your math...got the same result.
Here's a tip about cooking dried beans. Do not presoak the beans, just add water to the dried beans in a sauce pan after inspecting for foreign matter, bring to a boil, then turn down heat to a simmer. DO NOT ADD SALT OR ANY ACIDIC INGREDIENT TO THE SIMMERING BEANS. These will make the beans tough. The beans will be tender after simmering for the allotted time.
I've cooking beans without presoaking overnight for several years. BTW, as much as I like beans for soups and salads, there are no beans in my Texas-style chili.
Of course real Texas chili does not have beans...don't you boys shoot people down there for adding beans to Texas chili? Now your statement leads me to believe you dry, core, seed then grind your own chiles as opposed to buying a commercial chili powder. Care to share the ratio and concentration of the different chiles you use, Mr. ChiliDude?